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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

16.06.2025 02:44

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

I saw a post on X which says "control your lust & you'll understand how boring 90% of women are." What do you think about it? Do you agree or disagree? Why?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

There's no rule.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Which one is better to guys, boobs or butt?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Why does my dog keep licking at her privates now? She is 7 years old and has barely started licking there. The vet said she’s fine but she keeps doing that.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?